If you say: It has been mentioned what indicates the negation of their faith despite the existence of the warning, then he followed it with the saying: "Indeed, you only warn." [Mawlana Mahmood said: "If you say: It has been mentioned what indicates the negation of their faith despite the existence of the warning, then he followed it with the saying: 'Indeed, you only warn,' and the following would be correct if the warning were negated. He answered that it is so, but since it has been clarified that the desired goal of the warning, which is faith, is negated from them, he followed it with the saying: 'Indeed, you only warn,' meaning that the desired goal of the warning is only achieved by those who follow the reminder."] I said: In the question, there is a lack of proper etiquette, and it should be said: What is the reason for mentioning the second warning in the context of contradicting the first, while the first is affirming, and the second warning is likewise? And this following would be correct if the warning were negated. I said: It is as you said, but since that is a negation of faith with the existence of the warning, and its meaning is that the desired goal of the warning, which is faith, is not achieved, he followed it with the saying: 'Indeed, you only warn,' meaning that the desired goal is achieved by your warning from among those who are not warned, and they are the followers of the reminder: which is the Qur'an or the admonition, those who are humble before their Lord.